December 2013 UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper II

December 2013 UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper II 

1.       When data and acknowledgement are sent in the same frame, this is called as
(A) Piggy packing        (B) Piggy backing
(C) Back packing         (D) Good packing
Answer: B
2.       Encryption and Decryption is the responsibility of ............... Layer.
(A) Physical      (B) Network
(C) Application (D) Datalink
Answer: C
3.       An analog signal carries 4 bits in each signal unit. If 1000 signal units are sent per second, then baud rate and bit rate of the signal are ............... and ..............
(A) 4000 bauds \ sec & 1000 bps
(B) 2000 bauds \ sec & 1000 bps
(C) 1000 bauds \ sec & 500 bps
(D) 1000 bauds \ sec & 4000 bps
Answer: D
Explanation:
Bit rate is the number of bits per second. Baud rate is the number of signal units per second. Baud rate is less than or equal to the bit rate.
Baud rate = 1000 bauds per second (baud/s)
Bit rate = 1000 x 4 = 4000 bps
4.       The VLF and LF bauds use .............. propagation for communication.
(A) Ground                    (B) Sky
(C) Line of sight           (D) Space
Answer: A
5.       Using the RSA public key crypto system, if p=13, q=31 and d=7, then the value of e is
(A) 101   (B) 105
(C) 103  (D) 107
Answer: C
Explanation:
Basic RSA Algorithm:
1. Choose two primes, p & q.
2. Compute n=p*q and z=(p-1)*(q-1).
3. Choose a number relatively prime to z and call it d.
4. Find e such that e*d=1modz.
Given p=13, q=31 & d=7, e=?
n=p*q=403
z=(p-1)(q-1)=360
e*d=1modz
7e=1mod360, then 7e must be 361, 721, 1081, 1441, etc. Dividing each of these in turn by 7 to see which is divisible by 7, we find that 721/7 = 103, hence e = 103.


6.       FAN IN of a component A is defined as
(A) Number of components that can call or pass control to component A.
(B) Number of components that are called by component A.
(C) Number of components related to component A.
(D) Number of components dependent on component A.
Answer: A
7.       The relationship of data elements in a module is called
(A) Coupling     (B) Modularity
(C) Cohesion   (D) Granularity
Answer: C
8.       Software Configuration Management is the discipline for systematically controlling
(A) the changes due to the evolution of work products as the project proceeds.
(B) the changes due to defects (bugs) being found and then fixed.
(C) the changes due to requirement changes
(D) all of the above
Answer: D
9.       Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering ?
(A) Requirement elicitation
(B) Requirement analysts
(C) Requirement design
(D) Requirement documentation
Answer: C
10.    Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is called
(A) Alpha testing                      (B) Beta testing
(C) Regression testing           (D) None of the above
Answer: B
11.       The student marks should not be greater than 100. This is
(A) Integrity constraint
(B) Referential constraint
(C) Over-defined constraint
(D) Feasible constraint
Answer: A
12.       GO BOTTOM  and  SKIP-3 commands are given one after another in a database file of 30 records. It shifts the control to
(A) 28th record  (B) 27th record
(C) 3rd record    (D) 4th record
Answer: D
13.       An ER Model includes
I.  An ER diagram portraying entity types.
II. Attributes for each entity type
III. Relationships among entity types.
IV. Semantic integrity constraints that reflects the business rules about data not captured in the ER diagram.
(A) I, II, III & IV   (B) I&IV
(C) I, II & IV        (D) I & III
Answer: A
14.       Based on the cardinality ratio and participation ............... associated with a relationship type, choose either the Foreign Key Design, the Cross Referencing Design or Mutual Referencing Design.
(A) Entity           (B) Constraints
(C) Rules          (D) Keys
Answer: B
15.       Data Integrity control uses ................
(A) Upper and lower limits on numeric data.
(B) Passwords to prohibit unauthorised access to files.
(C) Data dictionary to keep the data
(D) Data dictionary to find last access of data
Answer: D


16.       What does the following declaration mean ?
int (*ptr) [10];
(A) ptr is an array of pointers of 10 integers.
(B) ptr is a pointer to an array of 10 integers.
(C) ptr is an array of 10 integers.
(D) none of the above.
Answer: B
17.       Which of the following has compilation error in C ?
(A) int n = 32;
(B) char ch = 65;
(C) float f= (float) 3.2;
(D) none of the above
Answer: D
18.       Which of the following operators cannot be overloaded in C+ + ?
(A) *        (B) +=
(C) ==     (D) ::
Answer: D
19.       .................. allows to create classes which are derived from other classes, so that they automatically include some of its "parent's" members, plus its own members.
(A) Overloading           (B) Inheritance
(C) Polymorphism       (D) Encapsulation
Answer: B
20.    The correct way to round off a floating number x to an integer value is
(A) y = (int)(x+0.5)
(B) y = int(x+0.5)
(C) y = (int)x+0.5
(D) y = (int)((int)x+0.5)
Answer: B

21.       What is the value of the postfix expression ?
a b c d + - * (where a = 8, b = 4, c = 2 and d = 5)
(A) -3/8               (B) -8/3
(C) 24                 (D) -24
Answer: D
22.       If the queue is implemented with a linked list, keeping track of a front pointer and a rear pointer, which of these pointers will change during an insertion into a non-empty queue?
(A) Neither of the pointers change
(B) Only front pointer changes
(C) Only rear pointer changes
(D) Both of the pointers changes
Answer: C
23.       ............... is often used to prove the correctness of a recursive function.
(A) Diagonalization
(B) Communitivity
(C) Mathematical Induction
(D) Matrix Multiplication
Answer: C
24.       For any B-tree of minimum degree t ≥2, every node other than the root must have atleast ............... keys and every node can have at most .............. keys.
(A) t-1, 2t+1       (B) t+1, 2t+1
(C) t-1, 2t-1        (D) t+1, 2t-1
Answer: C
25.       Given two sorted list of size 'm' and 'n' respectively. The number of comparison needed in the worst case by the merge sort algorithm will be
(A) m x n            (B) max (m, n)
(C) min (m, n)   (D) m + n – 1
Answer: C


26.       Given the following statements :
S1 : SLR uses follow information to guide reductions. In case of LR and LALR parsers, the look-aheads are associated with the items and they make use of the left context available to the parser.
S2 : LR grammar is a larger sub-class of context free grammar as compared to that SLR and LALR grammars.
Which of the following is true ?
(A) S1 is not correct and S2 is not correct.
(B) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct.
(C) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct.
(D) S1 is correct and S2 is correct.
Answer: C
27.       The context  free grammar for the language
L = {an bm | n≤m+3, n≥0, m≥0} is
(A) S→aaaA; A→aAb|B, B→Bb|λ
(B) S→aaaA|λ, A→aAb|B, B→Bb|λ
(C) S→aaaA|aaA|λ, A→aAb|B, B→Bb|λ
(D) S→aaaA|aaA|aA|λ, A→aAb|B, B→Bb|λ
Answer: C
28.       Given the following statements :
S1 : If L is a regular language then the language {uv | uϵL, vϵLR} is also regular.
S2 : L = {wwR} is regular language.
Which of the following is true ?
(A) S1 is not correct and S2 is not correct.
(B) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct.
(C) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct.
(D) S1 is correct and S2 is correct.
Answer: D
29.       The process of assigning load addresses to the various parts of the program and adjusting the code and data in the program to reflect the assigned addresses is called ..................
(A) Symbol resolution (B) Parsing
(C) Assembly                (D) Relocation
Answer: D
30.    Which of the following derivations does a top-down parser use while parsing an input string ? The input is scanned from left to right.
(A) Leftmost derivation
(B) Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse
(C) Rightmost derivation traced out in reverse
(D) Rightmost derivation
Answer: A
31.       The dual of a Boolean expression is obtained by interchanging
(A) Boolean sums and Boolean products
(B) Boolean sums and Boolean products or interchanging 0's and 1's
(C) Boolean sums and Boolean products and interchanging 0's & 1's
(D) Interchanging 0's and 1's
Answer: C
32.       Given that (292)10 = (1204)x in some number system x. The base x of that number system is
(A) 2       (B) 8
(C) 10     (D) None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
6|292
6|48|4
6|8|0
6|1|2
6|1|1
Solution: (1204)6
So here, x=6
33.       The sum of products expansion for the function
F(x, y, z) = (x + y)z’ is given as
(A) x’y’z + xyz’ + x’yz’
(B) xyz + xyz’ + xy’z’
(C) xy’z’ + x’y’z’ + xyz’
(D) xyz’ + xy’z’ + x’yz’
Answer: D
Explanation:
Use Boolean identities to expand the product and simplify.
F(x, y, z)=(x + y)z’
                =xz’+yz’                                  Distributive law
                =x1z’+1yz’                             Identity law
                =x(y+y’)z’+(x+x’)yz’              Unit property
                =xyz’+xy’z’+xyz’+x’yz’         Distributive law
                =xyz’+xy’z’+x’yz’                  Idempotent law
34.       Let P(m, n) be the statement
"m divides n" where the universe of discourse for both the variables is the set of positive integers. Determine the truth values of each of the following propositions:
I.  m n P(m,n),
II. m ∀n P(m, n)
(A) Both I and II are true
(B) Both I and II are false
(C) I - false & II - true
(D) I - true & II – false
Answer: C
35.       Big - O estimate for
f(x) = (x + 1) log(x2 + 1) + 3x2 is given as
(A) O(xlogx)      (B) O(x2)
(C) O(x3)            (D) O(x2logx)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Big-O notation of f(x)=(x+1) log(x2+1) + 3x2
Note (x+1) is O(x) and x2+1≤2x2 when x>1
 So, log x2+1≤log(2x2)=log 2+ log x2=log 2+ 2 log x
     ≤ 3 log x if x >2
Thus, log x2+1 is O(log x)
The first part of f(x) is O(x log x)
Also, 3x2 is O(x2)
So, f(x) is O(max(x log x, x2))=O(x2) as  x log x ≤ x2 for x >1


36.       How many edges are there in a forest of t-trees containing a total of n vertices ?
(A) n+t    (B) n-t
(C) n*t    (D) nt
Answer: B
37.       Let f and g be the functions from the set of integers to the set integers defined by
f(x) = 2x + 3 and g(x) = 3x + 2
Then the composition of f and g and g and f is given as
(A) 6x + 7, 6x + 11
(B) 6x + 11, 6x + 7
(C) 5x + 5, 5x + 5
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
fog(x)=f(g(x))=f(3x+2)=2(3x+2)+3=6x+7
gof(x)=g(f(x))=g(2x+3)=3(2x+3)+2=6x+11
38.       If n and r are non-negative integers and n≥r, then p(n + 1, r) equals to
(A) P(n,r)(n+1) / (n+1-r)
(B) P(n,r)(n+1) / (n-1+r)
(C) p(n,r)(n-1) / (n+1-r)
(D) p(n,r)(n+1) / (n+1+r)
Answer: A
39.       A graph is non-planar if and only if it contains a subgraph homeomorphic to
(A) K3,2 or K5     (B) K3,3 and K6
(C) K3,3 or K5     (D) K2,3 and K5
Answer: C
Explanation:
Kuratowski’s Theorem: A graph is non-planar if and only if it contains a subgraph that is homeomorphic to either K5 or K3,3.
40.    Which of the following statements are true ?
I.   A circuit that adds two bits, producing a sum bit and a carry bit is called half adder.
II.  A circuit that adds two bits, producing a sum bit and a carry bit is called full adder.
III. A circuit that adds two bits and a carry bit producing a sum bit and a carry bit is called full adder.
IV.  A device that accepts the value of a Boolean variable as input and produces its complement is called an inverter.
(A) I & II              (B) II & III
(C) I, II, III           (D) I, III & IV
Answer: D

41.       Active X controls are Pentium binary programs that can be embedded in ...............
(A) Word pages            (B) URL pages
(C) Script pages           (D) Web pages
Answer: D
42.       Match the following :
List-I                                                                  List - II
a. Wireless Application Environment          i. HTTP      
b. Wireless Transaction Protocol                  ii. IP
c. Wireless Datagram Protocol                      iii. Scripts
d. Wireless                                                        iv. UDP
Codes :
      a     b     c    d
(A) ii     iv     i     iii
(B) iv    iii     ii    i
(C) iv    iii     i     ii
(D) iii    i      iv    ii
Answer: D
43.       Which of the following is widely used inside the telephone system for long-haul data traffic ?
(A) ISDN                        (B) ATM
(C) Frame Relay          (D) ISTN
Answer: B
44.       The document standards for EDI were first developed by large business house during the 1970s and are now under the control of the following standard organisation:
(A) ISO               (B) ANSI
(C) ITU-T           (D) IEEE
Answer: B
45.       Electronic Data Interchange Software consists of the following four layers:
(A) Business application, Internal format conversion, Network translator, EDI envelope
(B) Business application, Internal format conversion, EDI translator, EDI envelope
(C) Application layer, Transport layer, EDI translator, EDI envelope
(D) Application layer, Transport layer, IP layer, EDI envelope
Answer: D


46.       Consider a preemptive priority based scheduling algorithm based on dynamically changing priority. Larger priority number implies higher priority. When the process is waiting for CPU in the ready queue (but not yet started execution), its priority changes at a rate a = 2. When it starts running, its priority changes at a rate b = 1. All the processes are assigned priority value 0 when they enter ready queue. Assume that the following processes want to execute :
Process                        Arrival            Service
ID                        Time               Time
P1                       0                      4
P2                       1                      1
P3                       2                      2
P4                       3                      1
The time quantum q = 1. When two processes want to join ready queue simultaneously, the process which has not executed recently is given priority. The finish time of processes P1, P2, P3 and P4 will respectively be
(A) 4, 5, 7 and 8
(B) 8, 2, 7 and 5
(C) 2, 5, 7 and 8
(D) 8, 2, 5 and 7
Answer: D
47.       The virtual address generated by a CPU is 32 bits. The Translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB) can hold total 64 page table entries and a 4-way set associative (i.e. with 4- cache lines in the set). The page size is 4 KB. The minimum size of TLB tag is
(A) 12 bits          (B) 15 bits
(C) 16 bits         (D) 20 bits
Answer: C
Explanation:
VirtualAddress = 32 bits
PageSize = 4KB = 12 bits
therefore : VPNTag = 20 bits, OffsetTag = 12 bits
TLBEntryLength = VPNTag = 20 bits
TotalTLBEntries = 64,
4-way implies 64/ 4 = 16 sets = 4 bits
therefore : TLBIndex = 4 bits
TLBTag = TLBEntryLength - TLBIndex = 20 - 4 = 16 bits
48.       Consider a disk queue with request for input/output to block on cylinders
98, 183, 37, 122, 14, 124, 65, 67
in that order. Assume that disk head is initially positioned at cylinder 53 and moving towards cylinder number 0. The total number of head movements using Shortest Seek Time First (SSTF) and SCAN algorithms are respectively
(A) 236 and 252 cylinders
(B) 640 and 236 cylinders
(C) 235 and 640 cylinders
(D) 235 and 252 cylinders
Answer: 236 and 208 cylinders
Explanation:
SSTF
Initial head position =53
The closest queue to initial head position=65
head moves from 53 to 65=12
head moves from 65 to 67=2
head moves from 67 to 37=30
head moves from 37 to 14=23
head moves from 14 to 98=84
head moves from 98 to 122=24
head moves from 122 to 124=2
head moves from 124 to 183=59
Total head movement=236
SCAN
Initial head position=53 and moving towards 0
head moves from 53 to 37=16
head moves from 37 to 14=23
head moves from 14 to 65=51
head moves from 65 to 67=2
head moves from 67 to 98=31
head moves from 98 to 122=24
head moves from 122 to 124=2
head moves from 124 to 183=59
Total head movement=208
49.       How much space will be required to store the bit map of a 1.3 GB disk with 512 bytes block size ?
(A) 332.8 KB     (B) 83.6 KB
(C) 266.2 KB     (D) 256.6 KB
Answer: A
Explanation:
block size=29bytes (512 bytes)
disk size=1.3x230bytes (1.3 GB)
n=1.3x230/29=1.3x221 bits=1.3x210x28x23 bits=1.3x28 Kilo Bytes=332.8 KB
50.    Linux operating system uses
(A) Affinity Scheduling
(B) Fair Preemptive Scheduling
(C) Hand Shaking
(D) Highest Penalty Ratio Next
Answer: B

2013 December UGC NET Solved Paper I

2013 December UGC NET  Solved Paper I


1. The post-industrial society is designated as
(A) Information society
(B) Technology society
(C) Mediated society
(D) Non-agricultural society
Answer: (A)

2. The initial efforts for internet based communication was for
(A) Commercial communication
(B) Military purposes
(C) Personal interaction
(D) Political campaigns
Answer: (B)

3. Internal communication within institutions done through
(A) LAN
(B) WAN
(C) EBB
(D) MMS
Answer: (A)

4. Virtual reality provides
(A) Sharp pictures
(B) Individual audio
(C) Participatory experience
(D) Preview of new films
Answer: (C)

5. The first virtual university of India came up in
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: (D)

6. Arrange the following books in chronological order in which they appeared. Use the code given below:
(i) Limits to Growth
ii) Silent Spring
(iii) Our Common Future
(iv) Resourceful Earth
Codes:
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answer: (C)

7. Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of desertification?
(A) Africa
(B) Asia
(C) South America
(D) North America
Answer: (A)
           
8. "Women are closer to nature than men." What kind of perspective is this?
(A) Realist
(B) Essentialist
(C) Feminist
(D) Deep ecology
 Answer: (B)

9. Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern in the removal of tropical forests?
(A) Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone layer.
(B) Their role in maintaining the oxygen and carbon balance of the earth.
(C) Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures, moisture content and reflectivity.
(D) Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.
Answer: (A)

10. The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man-environment interaction is one of the following:
(A) Natural Resource Conservation Approach
(B) Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach
(C) Rural-agricultural Growth Oriented Approach
(D) Watershed Development Approach
Answer: (D)

11. The major source of the pollutant gas, carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban areas is
(A) Thermal power sector
(B) Transport sector
(C) Industrial sector
(D) Domestic sector
Answer: (B)

12. ln a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of
(A) Methane
(B) Hydrogen
(C) LPG
(D) CNG
Answer: (B)

13. Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013?
(A) Distance Education Council (DEC)
(B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
(D) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
Answer: (A)

14. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Assessment and Accreditation Council?
1. It is an autonomous institution.
2. It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of higher education.
3. It is located in Delhi.
4. It has regional offices.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (B)

15. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls under its
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction
(D) Writ Jurisdiction
Answer: (C)

16. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. There are seven Union Territories in India.
2. Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies
3. One Union Territory has a High Court.
4. One Union Territory is the capital of two States.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (D)

17. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission?
1. The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.
2. The chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the president of India.
3. The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum  of Rs 25,000
4. It can punish an errant officer.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (C)

18. Who among the following conducted the CNN-IBN - The Hindu 2013 Election Tracker Survey across 267 constituencies in 18 States?
(A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)
(B) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)
(C) CNN and IBN
(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu
Answer: (A)

19. In certain code TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. The code of CHILDREN will be
(A) EKNJFTGP
(B) EJKNFTGP
(C) KNJFGTP
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)

20. A person has to buy both apples and mangoes. The cost of one apple is Rs 7/- whereas that of mango is Rs 5/-
If the person has Rs. 38, the number of apples he can buy is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: (D)

21. A man pointing to a lady said, "The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife," The lady is related to the man as
(A) Mother's sister
(B) Grand mother
(C) Mother-in-law
(D) Sister of Father-in-law
Answer: (D)

22. In this series 6, 4, 1,2,2,8, 7,4,2,1,5,3,8,6,2,2,7,1,4,1,3,5,8,6.
How many pairs of successive numbers have a difference of 2 each?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer: (C)

23. The mean marks obtained by a class of 40 students is 65; The mean marks of half of the students is found to be 45. The mean marks of the remaining students is
(A) 85
(B) 60
(C) 70
(D) 65
Answer: (A)

24. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three years ago, he was three times as old as Sunita. The present age of Anil is
(A) 6 years
(B) 8 years
(C) 12 years
(D) 16 years
Answer: (C)

25. Which of the following is a social network?
(A) amazon.com
(B) eBay
(C) gmail.com
(D) Twitter
Answer: (D)

26. The population information is called parameter while the corresponding sample information is known as
(A) Universe
(B) Inference
(C) Sampling design
(D) Statistics
Answer: (D)

Instructions: Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 27 to 32
            Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property. (ICCROM) was established with UNESCO's assistance in 1959. The inter-governmental organisation with 126 member states has done a commendable job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards, and sharing technical expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in global conservation, an assessment of international practices would be meaningful to the Indian conservation movement. Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination are some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have demonstrated that prioritizing heritage with significant budget provision pays. On the other hand, India, which is no less endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long way to go. Surveys indicate that in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the service of Archaeological Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In order to overcome this severe shortage the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training institutions. It would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream research and engineering Institutes, as has been done in Europe.
                          Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real challenge is to redefine international approaches to address local contexts. Conservation cannot limit itself to enhancing the art-historical value of the heritage structures which international charters perhaps over emphasize. The effort has to be broad-based. It must also serve as a means to improving the quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first task therefore is to integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans that take care of people living in the heritage vicinity. Unlike in western countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and conservation practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but is yet to receive substantial state support. More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilised by aligning it with the green building movement. Heritage structures are essentially eco-friendly and conservation could become a vital part of the sustainable building practices campaign in future.

27. The outlook for conservation heritage changed
(A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property
(B) after training the specialists in the field.
(C) after extending UNESCO's assistance to the educational institutions.
(D) after ASI’s measures to protect the monuments.
Answer: (A)

28. The inter-government organization was appreciated because of
(A) increasing number of members to 126.
(B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.
(C) consistent investment in conservation.
(D) its proactive role in renovation and restoration
Answer: (B)

29. Indian conservation movement will be successful if there would be
(A) Financial support from the Government of India.
(B) Non-governmental organisations role and participation in the conservation movement.
(C) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination of awareness for conservation
(D) Archaeological Survey of India's meaningful assistance.
Answer: (C)

30. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small number of protected monuments. As per given the total number of monuments and enlisted number of protected monuments percentage comes to
(A) 10 percent
(B) 11 percent
(C) 12 percent
(D) 13 percent
Answer: (B)

31. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage?
(i) There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural heritage.
(ii) Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.
(iii) Force the government to provide sufficient funds.
(iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes.
Choose the correct statement
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Answer: (B)

32. INTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our cultural heritage. The full form of INTACH is
(A) International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(B) Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(C) Integrated Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(D) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
Answer: (D)

33. While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, a teacher should
(A) keep quiet for a while and then continue.
(B) punish those causing disturbance
(C) motivate to teach those causing disturbance
(D) not bother of what is happening in the class
Answer: (C)

34. Effective teaching is a function of
(A) Teacher's satisfaction.
(B) Teacher's honesty and commitment
(C) Teacher's making students learn and understand
(D) Teacher's liking for professional excellence.
Answer: (C)

35. The most appropriate meaning of learning is
(A) Acquisition of skills
(B) Modification of behaviour
(C) Personal adjustment
(D) Inculcation of knowledge
Answer: (B)

36. Arrange the following teaching process in order:
(i) Relate the Present knowledge with Previous one
(ii) Evaluation
(iii) Reteaching
(iv) Formulating instructional objectives
(v) Presentation of instructional materials
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)
Answer: (D)

37. CIET stands for
(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology
(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology
(C) Central Institute for Education Technology
(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques.
Answer: (C)

38. Teacher's role at higher education
(A) provide information to students.
(B) promote self learning in students.
(C) encourage healthy competition among students.
(D) help students to solve their problems.
Answer: (B)

39. The Verstehen School of Understanding was popularised by
(A) German Social scientists
(B) American philosophers
(C) British Academicians
(D) Italian political Analysts
Answer: (A)

40. The sequential operations in scientific research are
(A) Co-vaiation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Generalisation, Theorisation
(B) Generalisation, Co-variation, Theorisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations
(C) Theorisation, Generalisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Co-variation
(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations, Theorisation, Generalisation, Co-variation.
Answer: (A)

41. In sampling, the lottery method is used for
(A) Interpretation
(B) Theorisation
(C) Conceptualisation
(D) Randomisation
Answer: (D)

42. Which is the main objective of research?
(A) To review the literature
(B) To summarize what is already known
(C) To get an academic degree
(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts
Answer: (D)

43. Sampling error decreases with the
(A) decrease in sample size
(B) increase in sample size
(C) process of randomization
(D) process of analysis
Answer: (B)

44. The Principles of fundamental research are used in 
(A) action research
(B) applied research
(C) philosophical research
(D) historical  research
Answer: (B)

45. Users  who use media for their own  ends are identified as
(A) Passive audience
(B) Active audience
(C) Positive audience
(D) Negative audience
Answer: (B)

46. Classroom communication can be described as
(A) Exploration
(B) Institutionalisation
(C) Unsignified narration
(D) Discourse
Answer: (D)

47. Ideological codes shape our collective
(A) Productions
(B) Perceptions
(C) Consumptions
(D) Creations
Answer: (B)

48. In communication myths have power but are
(A) uncultural
(B) insignificant
(C) imprecise
(D) unprefered
Answer: (C)
           
49. The first multi-lingual news agency of India was
(A) Samachar
(B) API
(C) Hindustan Samachar
(D) Samachar Bharati
Answer: (C)

50. Organisational  communication can be equated with
(A) intra-personal communication
(B) inter personal communication
(C) group communication
(D) mass comrnunication
Answer: (C)

51. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship  between them is called
(A) Contradictory
(B) Contrary
(C) Sub-contrary
(D) Sub-alteration
Answer: (A)

52. Ananaya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak Hindi as Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali?
(A) Archana
(B) Bulbul
(C) Ananya
(D) Krishna
Answer: (C)

53. A stipulative definition may be said to be
(A) Always true
(B) Always false
(C) Sometimes true, sometimes false
(D) Neither true nor false
Answer: (D)

54. When the conclusion of an argument  follows  from its premise/premises conclusively, the argument is called
(A) Circular argument
(B) Inductive argument
(C) Deductive argument
(D) Analogical argument
Answer: (C)

55. Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the sun as the Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is
What type of argument is contained in the above passage?
(A) Deductive
(B) Astrological
(C) Analogical
(D) Mathematical
Answer: (C)

56. Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four codes. Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.
Premises:
(i) All saints are religious. (major)
(ii) Some honest persons are saints. (minor)
Codes
(A) All saints are honest
(B) Some saints are honest.
(C) Some honest persons are religious.
 (C) All religious persons are honest
Answer: (C)

Following table provides details about the Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India from different regions of the’ world in different years. Study the table carefully and answer questions from 57 to 60 based on this table.
Region
Number of Foreign Tourist Arrival
2007
2008
2009
Western Europe
1686083
1799525
1610086
North America
1007276
1027297
1024469
South Asia
982428
1051846
982633
South East Asia
303475
332925
348495
East Asia
352037
355230
318292
West Asia
171661
215542
201110
Total FTAs in India
5081504
5282603
5108579

57. Find out the region that contributed around 20 percent of the total foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) South East Asia
Answer: (B)

58. Which of the following regions has recorded the highest negative growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009?
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) West Asia
Answer: (D)

59. Find out the region that has been showing declining trend in terms of share of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2008 and 2009.
(A) Western Europe
(B) South East Asia
(C) East Asia
(D) West Asia            
Answer: (A)

60. Identify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals than the growth rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) East Asia
Answer: (C)